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Philemon 5 – Chiasmus
V.5 – Chiasmus?
Lightfoot and Meyer, two respected commentators, are polarized in their views of this verse. Lightfoot, in comparing this with Col.1:4, believes this verse chiastic; “love” (agape) being connected with “saints,” and “faith” (pistis) directed to “Christ Jesus.” His argument points to the change in prepositions from “pros” (toward Jesus) to “eis” (toward saints). His conclusion is that Paul obviously meant a distinction. This “faith” would consequently be a theological belief in Jesus.
If this is a chiasmus, it is not the only Pauline use of a Hebraic poetic devise. It is possible the entire letter is a chiasmus (see Introduction). Paul used a double chiasmus in 1 Tim.3:16. These two evidences give credence to Lightfoot’s theory. However, had it not been for Paul’s use of a similar phrase in Colossians, this theory would not be as strong as Meyer’s. Even Lightfoot admits that it contradicts the logical order of the sentence.
Meyer campaigns the logical order, that is, the direction of the “faith” is toward both Christ and the saints. The fact that Paul changes prepositions is not a problem, for, according to Meyer, that is characteristic of Paul’s writing (Rom.3:20; Gal.2:16; Eph.1:7). Meyer precedes with the comment that “faith” (a theological faith) in Christ is never indicated by “pros.” He claims that “pistis” is referring to fidelity and steadfastness (Gal.5:22). This interpretation has both “love” and “faith” connected to both “Lord Jesus” and “saints.” (See their commentaries on Philemon.)
Both sides have validity. There are some questions to be applied to each position:
- Doesn’t it make sense that Paul’s use of “pistis” be coherent in passages so similar and written approximately at the same time?
- But why wouldn’t Paul be coherent with his prepositional use if they have the same meaning?
- In Colossians he states “en” (in) Christ, but in Philemon he switches to “pros” (towards) Christ; but in both texts he uses “eis” to modify “saints“. More questions than this author can answer exist. No one questions that “love” means the same in both texts.
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